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  #41  
Old 6th February 2009, 12:53
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BenHur:

Quote:
You're denying the fact that opposites combine to create something new. When you get the basics wrong, how can we take you seriously?
So, you believe that the bourgeoisie and the working class will 'combine' do you?

But, according to the dialectical prophets (quoted above), these two classes should change into one another.

You can believe whacko things like this if you want, but the rest of sane humanity will conclude otherwise.

Quote:
You haven't refuted DM. You have a flawed idea of DM, and it's this idea you've attempted to refute, rather than the theory itself. It's similar to a cappie equating socialism with Pol Pot, and arguing that socialism is a murderous cult thereof.
Well, you are the one who thinks that opposites will always and inevitably change into one another (or you should if you 'understand dialectics' as it is laid down in the Holy Books -- quote above): so when are males going to change into females, left hands into right hands, electrons into positrons (or is it protons), the forces of production into the relations of production?

And, until you can show where my arguments go wrong (or where my 'understanding' is defective), I have indeed refuted your mystical 'theory'.

Throwing your toys out of the pram is not an argument.
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  #42  
Old 6th February 2009, 16:26
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Maybe it would be good to go back to the initial point.

Quote:
why is DM considered a world theory?
If we set aside the mystical approach to it, I'd actually argue that it isn't a weltanschauungat at all, but is merely a philosophical generalization and thus simplification of what it expresses.
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  #43  
Old 6th February 2009, 16:43
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Well, you'd be almost alone in that, for most Marxists regard it as 'the world-view of the proletariat', and they do so for the reasons I outlined on page one.
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Old 6th February 2009, 17:06
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Well, you'd be almost alone in that
I'm not so sure about that.

Quote:
for most Marxists regard it as 'the world-view of the proletariat'
Well, most "Marxists" are Stalinists and so forth also.

Quote:
and they do so for the reasons I outlined on page one.
Oh yes, I saw. You are rather addressing Hegelianist dialectics though. What is called materialist dialectics on the other hand was first put forward by people such as Marx and Dietzgen and the latter certainly was a worker even if you don't consider the former to be one. And of course the first proponents of bourgeois materialism so far again before Marx and Dietzgen were - well, obviously bourgeois as well.
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  #45  
Old 6th February 2009, 17:31
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Leo:

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I'm not so sure about that.
In view of this:

Quote:
Well, most "Marxists" are Stalinists and so forth also.
and the fact that Maoists and Trotskyists accept this view of DM, it is only the libertarian Marxists and you New Communists who might not (however, I do not profess to know whether or not this is so).

In that case most Marxists do accept DM as 'the world-view of the proletariat'.

Quote:
You are rather addressing Hegelianist dialectics though. What is called materialist dialectics on the other hand was first put forward by people such as Marx and Dietzgen and the latter certainly was a worker even if you don't consider the former to be one. And of course the first proponents of bourgeois materialism so far again before Marx and Dietzgen were - well, obviously bourgeois as well.
No those comments apply to both the Hegelians and the 'materialist dialecticians', as is relatively easy to show.

Proof here:

http://homepage.ntlworld.com/rosa.l/page%2002.htm

And Dietzgen wasn't a worker (if by that you mean a proletarian):

This is what I have argued in Essay Nine Part One:

Quote:
Notwithstanding this, it could be argued that as a matter of fact the idea that workers cannot comprehend DM is factually incorrect: consider the case of Joseph Dietzgen. Dietzgen, it could be maintained, is a clear example of a proletarian who became a philosopher, one who was respected to some extent by Marx, Engels and Lenin. Indeed, Dietzgen it was who independently discovered/invented DM -- allegedly.

Now, while Dietzgen's working-class credentials are (shall we say) highly dubious (see below), his revolutionary sincerity is not open to question. He was clearly a fellow comrade and nothing said here should be interpreted as detracting from that fact. But that does not mean we should appropriate his work uncritically. That would be to turn him into an icon.

Unfortunately, Dietzgen's 'proletarian' credentials are far from convincing. According to the account given by his son [E. Dietzgen (1906), pp.7-33], Dietzgen senior was a "master tanner", who, after having worked in his father's shop, turned his hand to various different occupations. These included opening a grocery store, running a bakery and a tannery business; after this, he finally assumed control of the family firm in Germany. This means that Dietzgen's proletarian credentials are only marginally more 'convincing' than those of Engels himself!

However, even if it were true that he was a genuine "horny-handed proletarian", this would still not refute the claim made earlier that workers cannot form a single DM-idea on their own this side of being 'converted' to the faith by one of the dialectical-elect. This is so for two reasons:

First: Dietzgen's philosophical writings are thoroughly confused, and are vastly inferior even to those of Engels, Lenin and Trotsky. [An example of this confusion can be found here. {This is a link to Essay Two.}] Now, the Essays published at this site have shown that the philosophical ideas of DM-classicists make little sense; if that is so, the inferior work of Dietzgen stands no chance of holding together. Hence, if Dietzgen was a worker, the claim made here that no worker can comprehend DM finds ready confirmation in this case: he clearly did not understand it!

Second, but more importantly: irrespective of whether or not his ideas are comprehensible (or even whether he understood them), Dietzgen did not actually derive DM-concepts from his own experience; according to his son he learnt them by reading the works of Philosophers. [Cf., E. Dietzgen (1906), p.8.] Hence, if anything this further substantiates the point made here: DM-theses may only be obtained (directly or indirectly) from ruling-class sources, and they have to be imported into the working-class movement in this manner -- from the "outside".

The same comments are equally applicable to the other alleged examples of 'Proletarian Philosophers' (such as Tommy Jackson and Gerry Healy).
References and links can be found here:

http://homepage.ntlworld.com/rosa.l/page%2009_01.htm

Leo:

Quote:
And of course the first proponents of bourgeois materialism so far again before Marx and Dietzgen were - well, obviously bourgeois as well.
Maybe so, but what has that got to do with anything I said?
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  #46  
Old 6th February 2009, 17:51
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In view of this : (...) and the fact that Maoists and Trotskyists accept this view of DM, it is only the libertarian Marxists and you New Communists who might not (I do not profess to know this).
I am not a "New Communist" or a "libertarian marxist".

Quote:
In that case most Marxists do accept DM as 'the world-view of the proletariat'.
Fair enough, the minority isn't always a tiny one though.

Quote:
And Dietzgen wasn't a worker (if by that you mean a proletarian):
Yes, my bad - the Turkish wiki mislead me. He was a self-educated tanner though, an artisan. He wasn't an educated son of the big bourgeoisie anyway. Marx was a journalist who starved most of his life and lived off Engels basically.

Quote:
Notwithstanding this, it could be argued that as a matter of fact the idea that workers cannot comprehend DM is factually incorrect
I would say it is factually incorrect regardless of the example of Dietzgen. Workers are certainly capable of developing an understanding of what dialectics is as well as developing an opinion based on that understanding. Weren't you a postman yourself?

I think the idea that workers' can't understand dialectics has got to so with Stalinist intellectuals wanting create a mystical, "dialectical" explanation to their actions.

Quote:
Maybe so, but what has that got to do with anything I said?
Well, you are saying that dialectics as we know it today in all it's forms has it's roots in the bourgeoisie. I am saying that this applies to materialism as well.
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  #47  
Old 6th February 2009, 18:08
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Leo:

Quote:
I would say it is factually incorrect regardless of the example of Dietzgen. Workers are certainly capable of developing an understanding of what dialectics is as well as developing an opinion based on that understanding. Weren't you a postman yourself?
I was a postal worker, yes, among other things.

My claim was based on the observation that no one understands this theory (and not just workers), since it is incomprehensible.

Again, as is easy to show.

What dialectically-distracted comrades are good at, however, as this thread alone shows, is regurgitating dialectical phraseology which they plainly haven't given much thought. When asked to explain it, they almost invariably go very quiet, very quickly. A few will put up a weak attempt to do so (Gilhyle and BTB, among others here, are good examples of this), but they soon give up when it becomes apparent that they too cannot explain it. Nor can they tell us who can!

And I have yet to meet anyone in the last 25 or so years who can explain it. Nor have I read a single comprehensible account of it (in the many hundreds of books and articles I have had to endure in that time).

Quote:
Well, you are saying that dialectics as we know it today in all it's forms has it's roots in the bourgeoisie. I am saying that this applies to materialism as well.
And that is why my materialism is not the same as theirs.

Recall, I am not claiming that everything the bourgeoisie has ever said or which their theorists have ever invented is automatically wrong. My point is that it has been a general ruling-class ploy (from ancient Greek times to today) to argue that there is an invisble world anterior to the senses, which is accessible to thought alone, which is more real that the material world. Now that doctrine plainly this serves their interests.

It is an independent matter whether this family of theories or the arguments in support of them make any sense. In fact, in my essays, I first of all show that they do not, and then I proceed to expose their ideological roots.
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  #48  
Old 6th February 2009, 19:12
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My claim was based on the observation that no one understands this theory (and not just workers), since it is incomprehensible.
It's basics are quite simple in my opinion actually if not complicated with word plays. I think everyone would be able to say that it is basically an analytical logic regarding change and it's dynamics. It basically says everything changes, that these changes occurs of interaction which we regard as conflict, that changes we regard as quantitative lead to those we regard to as qualitative, and that these changes don't happen in a linear or circular but a spiral-like dynamic.

Quote:
Again, as is easy to show.

What dialectically-distracted comrades are good at, however, as this thread alone shows, is regurgitating dialectical phraseology which they plainly haven't given much thought. When asked to explain it, they almost invariably go very quiet, very quickly. A few will put up a weak attempt to do so (Gilhyle and BTB, among others here, are good examples of this), but they soon give up when it becomes apparent that they too cannot explain it. Nor can they tell us who can!
But they weren't really trying to explain what dialectics meant, they were trying to prove that it was the universally true laws of nature, that it was the ultimately correct weltanschauungat. What else can you expect when someone is trying to prove something like that?

Quote:
And that is why my materialism is not the same as theirs.
OK, but then again it would equally be valid for, let's say, Marx to say that his dialectics was not the same as Hegel's, just as he said his materialism was not the same as Feuerbach's.

Quote:
It is an independent matter whether this family of theories or the arguments in support of them make any sense. In fact, in my essays, I first of all show that they do not, and then I proceed to expose their ideological roots.
Fair enough.

Quote:
Recall, I am not claiming that everything the bourgeoisie has ever said or which their theorists have ever invented is automatically wrong. My point is that it has been a general ruling-class ploy (from ancient Greek times to today) to argue that there is an invisble world anterior to the senses, which is accessible to thought alone, which is more real that the material world. Now that doctrine plainly this serves their interests.
Yes, of course it is clear whose interests idealism served and that idealism was basically wrong. Yet on a different point, it is important to acknowledge the contribution of what idealist philosophy expressed in regards to the development of human thought which itself was of course determined by material conditions and progress. In his Theses on Feuerbach Marx himself says: "The chief defect of all hitherto existing materialism – that of Feuerbach included – is that the thing, reality, sensuousness, is conceived only in the form of the object or of contemplation, but not as sensuous human activity, practice, not subjectively. Hence, in contradistinction to materialism, the active side was developed abstractly by idealism – which, of course, does not know real, sensuous activity as such."
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  #49  
Old 6th February 2009, 19:29
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Leo:

Quote:
It's basics are quite simple in my opinion actually if not complicated with word plays. I think everyone would be able to say that it is basically an analytical logic regarding change and it's dynamics. It basically says everything changes, that these changes occurs of interaction which we regard as conflict, that changes we regard as quantitative lead to those we regard to as qualitative, and that these changes don't happen in a linear or circular but a spiral-like dynamic.
But, as I have shown, this makes no sense at all:

http://www.revleft.com/vb/showpost.p...4&postcount=23

http://www.revleft.com/vb/showpost.p...5&postcount=24

So, it's not the least bit 'simple'.

Quote:
But they weren't really trying to explain what dialectics meant, they were trying to prove that it was the universally true laws of nature, that it was the ultimately correct weltanschauungat. What else can you expect when someone is trying to prove something like that?
No, they do not even try to prove it, they just impose it on reality -- as is easy to show, too.

Quote:
OK, but then again it would equally be valid for, let's say, Marx to say that his dialectics was not the same as Hegel's, just as he said his materialism was not the same as Feuerbach's.
Indeed, and it is also easy to show that he abandoned the 'dialectic' as it is traditionally understood (by the vast majority of Marxists), and thus that he dropped things like the alleged 'law of the transformation of quantity into quality', 'dialectical contradictions', the 'negation of the negation', the 'unity of opposites', etc.

Quote:
Yet on a different point, it is important to acknowledge the contribution of what idealist philosophy expressed in regards to the development of human thought which itself was of course determined by material conditions and progress. In his Theses on Feuerbach Marx himself says: "The chief defect of all hitherto existing materialism – that of Feuerbach included – is that the thing, reality, sensuousness, is conceived only in the form of the object or of contemplation, but not as sensuous human activity, practice, not subjectively. Hence, in contradistinction to materialism, the active side was developed abstractly by idealism – which, of course, does not know real, sensuous activity as such."
I disagree; idealist thought has contributed zero to human knowledge. It has, on the other hand, contributed much to ruling-class thought.
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Old 6th February 2009, 20:06
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Well yes, when examined as if it was the laws of nature as claimed, it indeed does not make any sense at all - I never claimed otherwise, but I also said I don't think it was as such either. Yet something which, when declared the universal and the ultimate laws of the universe sounds mad can also be quite simple and basic when considered simply a generalization and simplification of our perceptions for example, of the way we understand things around us.

Quote:
No, they do not even try to prove it, they just impose it on reality -- as is easy to show, too.
Well, when someone regards a philosophical generalization and simplification as the ultimately 'true world' theory that is bound to happen, but you know what I mean.

Quote:
Indeed, and it is also easy to show that he abandoned the 'dialectic' as it is traditionally understood (by the vast majority of Marxists)
Yes, fair enough.

Quote:
and thus that he dropped things like the alleged 'law of the transformation of quantity into quality', 'dialectical contradictions', the 'negation of the negation', the 'unity of opposites', etc.
Certainly he did not regard them as laws anyway.

Quote:
I disagree; idealist thought has contributed zero to human knowledge. It has, on the other hand, contributed much to ruling-class thought.
But ruling-class though itself has contributed massively at times to human knowledge!
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  #51  
Old 6th February 2009, 23:18
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Leo:

Quote:
Yet something which, when declared the universal and the ultimate laws of the universe sounds mad can also be quite simple and basic when considered simply a generalization and simplification of our perceptions for example, of the way we understand things around us.
Which, of course, excludes dialectical materialism (or 'materialist dialectics').

Quote:
But ruling-class though itself has contributed massively at times to human knowledge!
But, not Idealism.
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Old 6th February 2009, 23:48
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Originally Posted by Rosa Lichtenstein View Post
Cummanach:



In fact, this piece by Stalin is embarrassingly poor. Quite apart from the fact that it is yet another example of a priori dogmatics (where Stalin imposes this theory on reality, and in defiance of the facts) he makes all the usual mistakes.
Yeah, because you're such a great judge of all things dialectics.
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  #53  
Old 7th February 2009, 00:14
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Cummanach:

Quote:
Yeah, because you're such a great judge of all things dialectics.
Maybe so, maybe not, but until you can show where I go wrong, say, here:

http://www.revleft.com/vb/showpost.p...4&postcount=23

http://www.revleft.com/vb/showpost.p...5&postcount=24

or in more detail, here:

http://homepage.ntlworld.com/rosa.l/page%2007.htm

the jury is still out on this.
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  #54  
Old 7th February 2009, 09:09
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Which, of course, excludes dialectical materialism (or 'materialist dialectics').
Well, at least excludes it the way it is understood by many, yes.

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But, not Idealism.
Regardless of the fact that if it made contribution to ruling-class thought, it at least indirectly make a contribution to human progress, I do think that idealists did make an abstract but direct contribution to aspects of human knowledge as well as to the way social sciences developed to an extent at specific periods.
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  #55  
Old 7th February 2009, 14:07
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Leo:

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Well, at least excludes it the way it is understood by many, yes.
Is there perhaps a version of this ruling-class theory I haven't heard?

Quote:
Regardless of the fact that if it made contribution to ruling-class thought, it at least indirectly make a contribution to human progress, I do think that idealists did make an abstract but direct contribution to aspects of human knowledge as well as to the way social sciences developed to an extent at specific periods.
Perhaps then you'd like to give us one example of this alleged 'contribution'?
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  #56  
Old 7th February 2009, 18:54
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Originally Posted by Rosa Lichtenstein View Post
A few will put up a weak attempt to do so (Gilhyle and BTB, among others here, are good examples of this),
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Originally Posted by Leo View Post
But they weren't really trying to explain what dialectics meant, they were trying to prove that it was the universally true laws of nature, that it was the ultimately correct weltanschauungat.
I can't really speak for Gilhyle, but I don't believe either of us have attempted to claim this. I'd like to see the evidence.

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Originally posted by Rosa
And that is why my materialism is not the same as theirs.
So how is your materialism different?
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  #57  
Old 7th February 2009, 20:45
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BTB:

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I'd like to see the evidence.
If you look at what I actually said, I did not claim this.

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So how is your materialism different?
It is based on ordinary language.
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Old 8th February 2009, 10:19
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I can't really speak for Gilhyle, but I don't believe either of us have attempted to claim this. I'd like to see the evidence.
I wasn't just referring to this thread or any posters in particular, I was trying to refer to the general approach to the question.

Quote:
Is there perhaps a version of this ruling-class theory I haven't heard?
I don't know, I don't see dialectics in itself as a "theory" as I said.

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It is based on ordinary language.
Dialectics too can be based on ordinary language.
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Old 8th February 2009, 10:22
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moved to learning at OPs request.
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Old 8th February 2009, 11:54
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Leo:

Quote:
Dialectics too can be based on ordinary language.
I'd like to see an example where it isn't based on a distortion of it; as Marx noted:

Quote:
The philosophers have only to dissolve their language into the ordinary language, from which it is abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual world, and to realise that neither thoughts nor language in themselves form a realm of their own, that they are only manifestations of actual life." [Marx and Engels The German Ideology, p.118. Bold emphasis added.]
And I note you dodged this challenge:

Quote:
Perhaps then you'd like to give us one example of this alleged 'contribution'?
Referring to this earlier claim of yours:

Quote:
Regardless of the fact that if it made contribution to ruling-class thought, it at least indirectly make a contribution to human progress, I do think that idealists did make an abstract but direct contribution to aspects of human knowledge as well as to the way social sciences developed to an extent at specific periods.
Perhaps you'll dodge my challenge above, too?
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