Hi,
I am new to feminism. I've started reading Greer's 'the whole woman' and I've run into trouble understanding the term 'Sexual Objectification'.
In an article entitled 'A Feminist Defense of Pornography', Wendy McElroy writes:
"If taken literally, it means nothing because objects don't have sexuality; only beings do."
A shoe can be a 'Sex-Object' to a shoe fetishist, but Person A cannot be a Sex-Object to Person B because Person A is a Person not an object.
If taken to mean 'the object of lust', why do so many feminists have a problem with it? Being the object of lust is a perfectly human thing, and is often desirable; Particularly when having sex.
If Person A sees a sexy stranger at a bus-stop (let's call the sexy stranger Person B) and goes home to masturbate about that person, where is the inherent harm in this?
I can only conclude that 'Sexual Objectification' is an inaccurate term for what it is trying to describe. It gives a negative connotation to a broad range of activities and behaviours, many of which are perfectly human. The term may be provocative by design, but I believe this only serves to confuse and to weaken credibility, and is unproductive.
Perhaps a solution would be to create two new terms (Term A and Term B) and to file all harmful incidences of sexual objectification under Term A, and all non-harmful incidences under Term B.
That way you don't have people like me defending their right to find their girlfriend sexy and vice versa.
Thanks,
Any response would be much appreciated
JC