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  #81  
Old 1st September 2008, 11:34
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Rosa Lichtenstein Rosa Lichtenstein is offline
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Trivas:

Quote:
I haven't a clue what you mean by "social causation".
And that's yet another item to add to the mile-long list of things you 'haven't a clue' about.

Quote:
And the point of the quote is that for Marx German philosophy is the result of class division and the reflection of historically distorted social relations, not a concern for language as such
That is not what the quoted words say:

Quote:
The philosophers have only to dissolve their language into the ordinary language, from which it is abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual world, and to realise that neither thoughts nor language in themselves form a realm of their own, that they are only manifestations of actual life.
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  #82  
Old 1st September 2008, 14:07
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rosa Lichtenstein View Post
That is not what the quoted words say:
You don't quote in context:
Quote:
Originally Posted by K.Marx
"We have shown that thoughts and ideas acquire an independent existence in consequence of the personal circumstances and relations of individuals acquiring independent existence. We have shown that exclusive, systematic occupation with these thoughts on the part of ideologists and philosophers, and hence the systematisation of these thoughts, is a consequence of division of labour, and that, in particular, German philosophy is a consequence of German petty-bourgeois conditions. The philosophers have only to dissolve their language into the ordinary language, from which it is abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual world, and to realize that neither thoughts nor language in themselves form a realm of their own, that they are only manifestations of actual life."
--Marx and Engels (1970), The German Ideology, p.118. Bold emphasis added.
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  #83  
Old 1st September 2008, 14:31
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Rosa Lichtenstein Rosa Lichtenstein is offline
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Trivas:

Quote:
You don't quote in context:
I did do, in the last post but one:

Quote:
Trivas, where in this passage does Marx say he repudiates causal explanations?

Sure, he seeks a more nuanced account of human interaction, but he can obtain that causally with the sort of vocabulary we have available in ordinary language, which, as I have shown, he uses all the time.

He even says so himself:

Quote:
"We have shown that thoughts and ideas acquire an independent existence in consequence of the personal circumstances and relations of individuals acquiring independent existence. We have shown that exclusive, systematic occupation with these thoughts on the part of ideologists and philosophers, and hence the systematisation of these thoughts, is a consequence of division of labour, and that, in particular, German philosophy is a consequence of German petty-bourgeois conditions. The philosophers have only to dissolve their language into the ordinary language, from which it is abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual world, and to realise that neither thoughts nor language in themselves form a realm of their own, that they are only manifestations of actual life." [Marx and Engels (1970), The German Ideology, p.118. Bold emphasis added.]
http://www.revleft.com/vb/showpost.p...3&postcount=77

So, even in context, these words do not say what you would like them to say.

Marx is quite clear: "The philosophers have only to dissolve their language into the ordinary language, from which it is abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual world."

Moreover, Marx showed he preferred to use ordinary langauge wherever possible in Das Kapital --, employing for example the ordinary language of causation, as I have demonstrated.

However, we still await your proof that Marx was not seeking a causal account of capitalism.

But, we know from past experience that we have an awful long wait ahead of us.
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  #84  
Old 1st September 2008, 14:59
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rosa Lichtenstein View Post
Moreover, Marx showed he preferred to use ordinary langauge wherever possible in Das Kapital --, employing for example the ordinary language of causation, as I have demonstrated.
Marx's use of language is your concern, Rosa, not Marx's.

Nor do I see where Marx states the cause of social change outside of historically mediated social conditions. Do you?
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  #85  
Old 1st September 2008, 15:16
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Trivas:

Quote:
Marx's use of language is your concern, Rosa, not Marx's.
Too bad for you, Marx agrees with me, not you:

Quote:
"The philosophers have only to dissolve their language into the ordinary language, from which it is abstracted, in order to recognise it, as the distorted language of the actual world, and to realise that neither thoughts nor language in themselves form a realm of their own, that they are only manifestations of actual life." [Marx and Engels (1970), The German Ideology, p.118. Bold emphasis added.]
Marx would hardly say this if he was unconcerned about language.

Quote:
Nor do I see where Marx states the cause of social change outside of historically mediated social conditions. Do you?
So, you admit then that Marx does appeal to the cause of social change, otherwise what do you mean by this?

And what you say is not even factually correct. Marx uses the full range of causal language available to him from ordianary language to explain social change.
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  #86  
Old 1st September 2008, 15:27
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rosa Lichtenstein View Post
Trivas:
Too bad for you, Marx agrees with me, not you:

So, you admit then that Marx does appeal to the cause of social change, otherwise what do you mean by this?

And what you say is not even factually correct. Marx uses the full range of causal language available to him from ordianary language to explain social change.
Except language as such isn't Marx's concern at all.

Yes, I know that your only concern here is one-upmanship, Rosa. Good luck with that.
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  #87  
Old 1st September 2008, 16:46
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Trivas:

Quote:
Except language as such isn't Marx's concern at all.
Except he disagrees with you.

Quote:
Yes, I know that your only concern here is one-upmanship, Rosa. Good luck with that.
Just as yours seems to be to confirm that you 'do no think about things you don't think about'.

And we are still waiting for the proof that Marx was not trying to give a causal account of social change in Das Kapital.
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  #88  
Old 2nd September 2008, 19:46
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Your problem is to try to explain how two objects or processes can be mutually exclusive, but yet co-exist.
Indeed and that is exactly what one understands when one studies the particular issue.....but you are not interested in that process of study and understanding, you want to resolve this matter in advance of study, by philosophical fiat. But that is your metaphysical way.......I make no assumption that dialectical contradictions exist, I merely recognise them when I find them.

Behind all your bluster in defence of so-called causal analysis, you dont define it either, or explain how it works or exclude the possibility of oher types of explanation. Its absurdly reductionist to think of all explanation as causal. Of course some isthat is not controversial. But the idea that all explanation is about describing the material precoditions o a defined event is patently inadequate to what Capital does.
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  #89  
Old 2nd September 2008, 20:31
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Gil:

Quote:
Indeed and that is exactly what one understands when one studies the particular issue.....but you are not interested in that process of study and understanding, you want to resolve this matter in advance of study, by philosophical fiat. But that is your metaphysical way.......I make no assumption that dialectical contradictions exist, I merely recognise them when I find them.
So, the short answer is -- after you once again make a weak attempt to deflect attention from your predicament and onto my alleged failings -- that you can't explain this 'paradox'.

Fine, just admit it's a mystery every bit as deep as the Christian Trinity.

Quote:
Behind all your bluster in defence of so-called causal analysis, you dont define it either, or explain how it works or exclude the possibility of oher types of explanation. Its absurdly reductionist to think of all explanation as causal. Of course some isthat is not controversial. But the idea that all explanation is about describing the material precoditions o a defined event is patently inadequate to what Capital does.
1) You are the one who is blustering, sunshine. It is you who can't explain this core concept.

2) And your highly emotional state (doubtless this is because you are now seeing your source of dialectical opiates slowly evaporate under my relentless attacks) explains the increasingly incoherent comments you are posting.

3) Finally, what is so evil about causal language? After all, Marx uses it all the time.

So: we still do not know what a 'dialectical contradiction' is -- or if we do, we also know they cannot exist, and so cannot change anything.
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  #90  
Old 8th September 2008, 20:47
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Quote:
what is so evil about causal language?
Nothing
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"Dixi et salvavi animam meam" - quoted by Marx
"Things rarely work out well if one aims at 'moderation'..." - Engels
"By and by we heare newes of shipwrack in the same place, then we are too blame if we accept it not for a Rock." Sir Philip Sydney
"The most to be hoped for by groups who claim to belong to the Marxist succession (...) is for them to serve as a hyphen between past and future....nothing can be held sacred – everything is called into question. Only after having been put through such a crucible could socialism conceivably re-emerge as a viable doctrine and plan of action." - Van Heijenoort
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  #91  
Old 8th September 2008, 21:06
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Rosa Lichtenstein Rosa Lichtenstein is offline
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Gil:

Quote:
Nothing
In that case, why say this?

Quote:
Behind all your bluster in defence of so-called causal analysis, you dont define it either, or explain how it works or exclude the possibility of oher types of explanation. Its absurdly reductionist to think of all explanation as causal. Of course some isthat is not controversial. But the idea that all explanation is about describing the material precoditions o a defined event is patently inadequate to what Capital does.
And still, we have yet to be told what a 'dialectical contradiction' is -- the 'best' attempt so far suggests that they cannot exist, and so cannot change anything.
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Last edited by Rosa Lichtenstein; 8th September 2008 at 21:31.
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  #92  
Old 9th September 2008, 22:55
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Because your whole, endlessly repetitive line of argument is to demand of others that they define and explain usages....while not believing yourself that that is practical.
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"Dixi et salvavi animam meam" - quoted by Marx
"Things rarely work out well if one aims at 'moderation'..." - Engels
"By and by we heare newes of shipwrack in the same place, then we are too blame if we accept it not for a Rock." Sir Philip Sydney
"The most to be hoped for by groups who claim to belong to the Marxist succession (...) is for them to serve as a hyphen between past and future....nothing can be held sacred – everything is called into question. Only after having been put through such a crucible could socialism conceivably re-emerge as a viable doctrine and plan of action." - Van Heijenoort
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  #93  
Old 9th September 2008, 23:53
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Gil:

Quote:
Because your whole, endlessly repetitive line of argument is to demand of others that they define and explain usages....while not believing yourself that that is practical.
Not so; I only require you mystics to be clear about certain key ideas that you conveniently leave vague.

Since I have no theory, nor do I want one, whereas you lot claim to have one (that you can't defend), I do not need to define anything, but you lot need to be far clearer about your ideas.

Of course, it may be that you lot can't be clear.

You can always prove me wrong...
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